I have recently read the book "Тригонометрические ряды от Эйлера до Лебега" (Trigonometric series from Euler to Lebesgue) and on page 12, there are 2 intriguing formlae derived by Euler in 1748. The book doesn't specify from which publication these two series come. Further up on that page, there is a mention of the "введения в анализ бесконечных" (Introduction to the analysis of the infinite), which was published also in 1748. Thus I suspect that these two formulae may come from there.
The above two formulae are as followed:
1−rcos(x)1−2rcos(x)+r2=1+rcos(x)+r2cos(2x)...=1++∞∑n=1rncos(nx)
rsin(x)1−2rcos(x)+r2=rsin(x)+r2sin(2x)...=1++∞∑n=1rnsin(nx)
In the above book, the author states that Euler didn't provide the radius of convergence for these series, he wrote: "никаких указаний на области применимости этих и подобных им разложений у Эйлера нет" (No indications of range of applications are provided by Euler for these and similar expressions) (page 13)
The radius of convergence should be |r|<1
At r=1 and r=−1, Euler obtained:
−12=cos(x)+cos(2x)+cos(3x)+...
12=cos(x)−cos(2x)+cos(3x)+...
Both of these trigonometric series diverge ∀x∈R
I wish to provide a derivation of these two formulae. This is derived from an answer of Student A Level, a member of Mathstackexchange, the site is here
We proceed by working with the RHS of the equation (1) and (2) and try to turn it into the LHS.
We denote the series in (1) as C, and the series in (2) as B
C=1+rcosx+r2cos2x+r3cos3x+⋯
S=rsinx+r2sin2x+r3sin3x+⋯
We will use the Euler identity eix=cos(x)+isin(x) and einx=cos(nx)+isin(nx)
We multiply S with imaginary number i=√−1, and obtain the new series:
iS=risin(x)+r2isin(2x)+r3isin(3x)...
Summing these two series, we have
C+iS=1+r[cos(x)+isin(x)]+r2[(cos(2x)+isin(2x)]+r3[cos(3x)+isin(3x)]...
Using Euler identity, we have:
C+iS=1+reix+(reix)2+(reix)3+(reix)4+...
This is, in fact, a geometric series, and the general formula is:
11−kt=1+kt+(kt)2+(kt)3+(kt)4+...
Let r=k and t=eix
We have 11−reix
Let r=k and t=eix
We have 11−reix=1+reix+(reix)2+(reix)3+(reix)4+...
On the LHS: we mutiply the fraction with 1−re−ix, so we will have
1−re−ix(1−reix)(1−re−ix)=1−r(cos(x)−irsin(x))1−re−ix−reix+r2
This is the tricky part of the proof, we wish to turn
1−re−ix−reix+r2=1−r(e−ix+eix)+r2=1−2rcos(x)+r2
We can work backward and realize that cos(x)=eix+e−ix2, so we need to multiply re−ix−reix with 2r(e−ix+eix2). So we will have:
1−re−ix−reix+r2=1−2r(e−ix+eix2)+r2=1−2rcos(x)+r2
Thus we have:
1−r(cos(x)−isin(x)1−2rcos(x)+r2=1−rcos(x)+irsin(x)1−2rcos(x)+r2=1−rcos(x)1−2rcos(x)+r2+irsin(x)1−2rcos(x)+r2
Equating the imaginary and the real part, we thus have:
A=1−rcos(x)1−2rcos(x)+r2=+∞∑n=1rncos(nx)
B=rsin(x)1−2rcos(x)+r2=+∞∑n=1rnsin(nx)
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